Chelsea midfielder Tiemoue Bakayoko is the subject of interest from both Paris Saint-Germain and Manchester United, with the Blues set to make a decision on his future once Frank Lampard has decided whether he wants to keep him or not.
Bakayoko endured an abysmal debut campaign with Chelsea, prompting them to send him out on loan to AC Milan last season. His time in Italy was much better and, with Chelsea dealing with a transfer ban, it is thought that he could feature for the Blues once more.
However, if Lampard decides he is not a fan of Bakayoko, RMC Sport claim that both PSG and United will pursue moves for the midfielder.
PSG director Leonardo is said to be leading the charge for Bakayoko, having been the one who signed him on loan for Milan in the first place. The club are on the lookout for a defensive midfielder, and are said to see Bakayoko as the ideal candidate.
Leonardo is in contact with Bakayoko’s representatives, and will look to push forward with a deal if the 24-year-old finds himself out the exit door at Stamford Bridge.
However, they will face competition from United, who are said to be ‘very interested’ in Bakayoko. The Red Devils have lost Ander Herrera, whilst both Nemanja Matic and Paul Pogba could be on their way out, meaning midfield reinforcements will be high on Ole Gunnar Solskjaer’s wish list.
Arsenal are also named as potential suitors, although it is unlikely that they would be able to afford a deal for Bakayoko, who cost Chelsea £40m back in 2017.
Bakayoko has begun training with the Chelsea squad ahead of pre-season fixtures in Ireland, and it is said that Lampard will make a final decision on the Frenchman after their time in Dublin comes to an end on Saturday, 13 July.
Chelsea will play two fixtures on the first leg of their pre-season tour, meaning Bakayoko does not have long to win over any doubters he may have at the club.
However, if he can prove that he can carry his form over into the new season, he could prove to be a vital part of Chelsea’s midfield going forward.